Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 03:56

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What do you think of Hegseth calling The Atlantic journalist Jeffrey Goldberg, "a deceitful and highly discredited so-called journalist who has made a profession of peddling hoaxes” after team Trump texted him their top-secret war plans on Yemen?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why is there no great temptress figure in any of Tolkien’s major works?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How does a new KDP writer supposed to market a book?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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